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Historians have been hard pressed to explain the extraordinary mortality of the 1348 outbreak. Their best guess is that there was more than one variety of plague at work in Europe. There are two other varieties of plague: septicaemic plague, which attacks the blood, and pneumonic plague, which attacks the lungs...
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The pneumonic plague is especially dangerous as it can be transmitted through the air. Both of these two are nearly 100% fatal. It seems likely that some form of pneumonic plague was at work alongside the bubonic plague in those awful years.
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When mathematicians, historians and scientists say that they have explained something, are they using the word "explain" in the same way?
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